Da Vinci Trading Interview Questions 2026

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Da Vinci Trading Quant Interview Practice

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A campsite must order all the fresh water it will need tomorrow. The manager's estimates are:

  • 20 campers each drink 3 litres.
  • Cooking requires another 30 litres.
  • Washing dishes uses 50 litres.
  • Cleaning the floors requires 40 litres.

The campsite can capture 60% of the dishwashing water after use and reuse that water only for the floors. It cannot be used for drinking, cooking or washing dishes again. Water is reused only once, and all estimated demand must be met.

How many litres of new water must the campsite order? If delivery is available only in sealed 20-litre containers, what is the minimum number of containers?

Hint 1

First calculate the floor-cleaning demand that captured dishwater can actually cover.

Add the fresh-water demands for drinking, cooking and initial dishwashing, then add only the floor-cleaning shortfall. Do not discount every category by 60%.

Drinking needs \(20\times3=60\) L. Cooking needs 30 L. Dishwashing itself needs 50 L of initially fresh water. Those uses consume \(60+30+50=140\) L of new supply before floor cleaning.

Recovery provides \(0.60\times50=30\) L of dishwater that may be reused only for floors. Since floors need 40 L, they still require \(40-30=10\) L of fresh water. Therefore
\[ W_{\mathrm{new}}=60+30+50+\max(40-30,0)=\boxed{150\text{ L}}. \]
The same answer follows by balancing total uses: \(60+30+50+40=180\) L of water demand, of which 30 L is met by water already supplied for dishwashing, leaving 150 L of external supply. This recovered 30 L must not be counted again as new water. Nor can it offset drinking or cooking, which require fresh water.

Containers cannot be divided, so the minimum number is \(\lceil150/20\rceil=\boxed{8}\). The site receives 160 L and has 10 L spare if forecasts are exact.

Assumptions

  • All demands are fixed forecasts for one day and measured in litres.

  • Only 60% of the 50 L dishwashing use is recoverable; reuse is restricted to floor cleaning and the remainder is lost.

  • Every container holds 20 L of delivered fresh water; containers cannot be split or purchased fractionally.

Final Answer

150 litres of fresh water; order 8 containers of 20 litres (160 litres delivered).

Numerical reasoning and estimation
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A festival prints promotional tickets using one of two machines, selected at random afresh for each ticket. Machine A prints Sponsor Gold's mark on 80% of its tickets and Sponsor Blue's mark on 20%. Machine B prints Gold's mark on 20% and Blue's on 60%; its other tickets are blank. Each ticket carries at most one sponsor mark.

The organiser wants exactly 50% of all tickets to show Gold and exactly 50% to show Blue in the long-run probability sense. The only control is the single probability \(q\) of choosing machine A, with \(1-q\) for machine B; the machines' internal behaviour cannot be changed.

Can one valid value of \(q\) meet both promises? If not, calculate what each promise separately demands and explain the incompatibility.

Hint 1

A ticket’s chance of carrying each mark is a weighted average of the two machines’ chances, using the same mixing weight.

Solve \(0.8q+0.2(1-q)=0.5\) and \(0.2q+0.6(1-q)=0.5\) separately, checking that the resulting values coincide and lie in \([0,1]\).

The organiser has only one decision variable, \(q=P(\text{use machine A})\), shared by both sponsor outcomes. By conditioning on the selected machine,
\[ P(G)=0.8q+0.2(1-q)=0.2+0.6q, \qquad P(B)=0.2q+0.6(1-q)=0.6-0.4q. \]
To promise a 50% Gold rate, \(0.2+0.6q=0.5\) requires \(q=0.3/0.6=\boxed{1/2}\). But the 50% Blue rate requires \(0.6-0.4q=0.5\), or \(q=0.1/0.4=\boxed{1/4}\).

Both weights are individually feasible, but they differ. A machine-selection policy cannot simultaneously use machine A with probability 1/2 and 1/4. If the organiser honours Gold, Blue's rate would be \(0.6-0.4(1/2)=0.4\), only 40%. If they honour Blue, Gold's rate would be \(0.2+0.6(1/4)=0.35\), only 35%.

At the permitted endpoints \(q=0\) and \(q=1\), the output pairs are \((\text{Gold }20\%,\text{ Blue }60\%)\) and \((\text{Gold }80\%,\text{ Blue }20\%)\). Every achievable pair lies on the line segment connecting those points; \((50\%,50\%)\) is not on that segment. Thus the promises are incompatible under the one-parameter policy, even though each separate target is attainable.

Assumptions

  • The two machines’ stated conditional ticket-mark probabilities are fixed.

  • Every ticket uses exactly one machine, selected independently with the same probability q.

  • A ticket carries at most one mark, with the remaining machine-B probability producing a blank ticket.

Final Answer

No. Gold at 50% requires \(q=\frac12\), while Blue at 50% requires \(q=\frac14\). One selection probability cannot satisfy both.

Probability foundations
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A delivery service classifies parcels as easy (70% of all parcels) or difficult (30%). A dispatcher may send a parcel by urgent courier (U) or routine courier (R). Under the current policy, 20% of easy parcels and 80% of difficult parcels are sent urgently. Once the parcel type and courier choice are fixed, the probability of on-time delivery is:

Parcel type Urgent U Routine R
Easy 95% 85%
Difficult 60% 30%

Assume the table also describes what would happen if management changed the routing policy: for each type, forcing U instead of R does not change the corresponding success rate, and there are no interactions between parcels.

The manager observes that a parcel went out urgently under the current policy. What is its on-time probability? Compare this with the overall on-time probability under a new policy that sends every parcel urgently. Why are these not the same quantity, even though both refer to urgent deliveries?

Hint 1

Urgent parcels are not a random cross-section of all parcels: difficult parcels are disproportionately routed urgently.

First find \(\Pr(\text{easy},U)\) and \(\Pr(\text{difficult},U)\) and divide their successful urgent probability by \(\Pr(U)\). Under forced U, weight the two U success rates by 70% and 30%.

Let \(E\) and \(D\) denote easy and difficult parcels, and \(S\) mean on-time completion. Under the current policy,

\(\Pr(E\cap U)=0.7(0.2)=0.14\), \(\Pr(D\cap U)=0.3(0.8)=0.24\), so \(\Pr(U)=0.38\).

The joint probability of urgent and on time is \(0.14(0.95)+0.24(0.60)=0.133+0.144=0.277\). Conditional on observing an urgent dispatch, the success probability is consequently

\(\Pr(S\mid U)=0.277/0.38=\boxed{277/380\approx0.72895}\).

Under a policy that forces urgent delivery for every parcel, the type mix stays at 70% easy and 30% difficult. By the problem's explicitly stated policy-invariance rule, the success probability is

\(\Pr(S\mid \operatorname{force}U)=0.7(0.95)+0.3(0.60)=0.665+0.180=\boxed{0.845}\).

These expressions use different denominators and weights. Observed urgent parcels are only \(0.14/0.38=7/19\) easy, whereas the entire population is \(7/10\) easy. The currently urgent group is selected towards difficult cases; forcing the action changes that composition. For an additional consistency check, routine parcels have current success rate \([0.7(0.8)(0.85)+0.3(0.2)(0.30)]/0.62=0.494/0.62\approx0.7968\), even though urgent delivery improves the success rate within both types. This reversal is a selection effect, not evidence that urgent service is harmful. No unmeasured causal premise is needed because the problem supplies the policy-invariant type-specific rates explicitly.

Assumptions

  • Parcel type is determined before the route and is unaffected by any dispatch policy.

  • Route selection under the existing policy has the stated probabilities conditional on type.

  • The given on-time probabilities apply to both observed and externally forced routes within type, with no interference.

Final Answer

Currently observed urgent deliveries succeed with probability \(277/380\approx72.89\%\). Sending every parcel urgently yields \(169/200=84.5\%\) on-time delivery.

Conditional probability
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A library charges $3 for each complete day that a borrowed book remains overdue, but the total late fee is capped at $12. Each day after the due date, conditional on still having the book that morning, the borrower independently returns it sometime before closing with probability 1/4. A day on which the book is returned is not counted as a complete overdue day. The borrower keeps trying after the fee reaches its cap, and returns eventually with probability one.

What fee should the library expect to collect from this borrower? Give the exact amount as well as a value rounded to cents.

Hint 1

If T is the day of return, counted from 1, the number of charged complete days is \(T-1\). The charge is \(3\cdot\operatorname{min}(T-1,4)\).

Use \(E[\operatorname{min}(T-1,4)]=\sum_{k=1}^{4}P(T-1\ge k)\), and write those survival probabilities for a geometric return time.

Let \(T\in\{1,2,\ldots\}\) be the first post-due-date day on which the borrower returns the book. Conditional daily return probability \(p=1/4\) makes T geometric: \(P(T=t)=(3/4)^{t-1}(1/4)\). Because the return day is excluded, there are \(T-1\) chargeable complete days, but the fee stops at four days' worth. Define \(F=3\cdot\operatorname{min}(T-1,4)\) dollars.

For a nonnegative integer N, \(\operatorname{min}(N,4)=\sum_{k=1}^{4}1\{N\ge k\}\). Taking expectations gives the tail-sum identity
\[\begin{aligned}E[F]&=3\sum_{k=1}^{4}P(T-1\ge k)=3\sum_{k=1}^{4}(3/4)^{k}\\&=3[(3/4)(1-(3/4)^{4})/(1-3/4)]\\&=9(1-81/256)=1575/256\end{aligned}\] dollars ≈ $6.15.

For an independent direct distribution check, the possible fees are $0 for \(T=1\), $3 for \(T=2\), $6 for \(T=3\), $9 for \(T=4\) and $12 for \(T\ge5\). Thus
\[E[F]=3(3/16)+6(9/64)+9(27/256)+12(81/256)=1575/256\].

The cap limits charges, not the stochastic time until return. Counting the return day would shift the whole distribution and produce the wrong fee.

Assumptions

  • The daily conditional return chance remains 1/4 on every day until return, independent of earlier unsuccessful days.

  • The cap applies to collected dollars, not to the probability of return.

  • The return day itself never incurs a daily fee.

Final Answer

Expected fee = $\(\frac{1575}{256}\) ≈ $6.15 (more precisely $6.15234375).

Expectation and expected value
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A contractor already holds a service contract worth $8,000 in profit if retained. A challenger may file a competing tender: filing always costs the challenger $3,000, and a successful challenge yields $10,000 before that filing fee. Filing fails if the incumbent has mobilized a defense crew; otherwise the challenger takes the contract and the incumbent gets no contract profit.

The incumbent privately knows its crew-mobilization cost: with probability 40% it is $2,000, and with probability 60% it is $4,000. Everyone knows these probabilities, but only the incumbent knows its own type. After learning its cost, the incumbent chooses whether to mobilize; the challenger simultaneously chooses whether to file, without observing the mobilization choice. Mobilization costs are paid even if nobody files. Players maximize expected monetary profit and can randomize independently conditional on their information.

Find the Bayesian Nash equilibrium: the challenger's filing probability and each incumbent type's mobilization probability. Check that neither player, including either private cost type, wants a pure-strategy deviation.

Hint 1

The incumbent's defense benefit is realized only when a challenge occurs, but its defense cost is paid even if no challenge occurs.

If the challenger files with probability \(e\), the incumbent type with cost \(c\) compares a defense benefit \(8e\) (in thousands of dollars) against \(c\). The challenger is indifferent when the unconditional defense chance is \(1-3/10\).

Work in thousands of dollars. Let \(e\) be the probability of a challenge and \(d_L,d_H\) the low- and high-cost incumbent mobilization probabilities. If mobilization occurs, the incumbent retains its profit of 8 and pays cost \(c\), whether or not entry occurs. If it does not mobilize, it retains 8 only when there is no entry. Thus the expected incremental value of mobilization for type \(c\) is
\[ (8-c)-8(1-e)=8e-c. \]
The low type \(c_L=2\) defends whenever \(e>1/4\); the high type \(c_H=4\) defends whenever \(e>1/2\), and each is indifferent at its threshold.

The challenger's expected payoff from filing (before mixing) is
\[ 10(1-q)-3,\qquad q=0.4d_L+0.6d_H, \]
where \(q\) is the unconditional chance that the incumbent mobilizes. Not filing pays zero. Indifference requires \(q=0.7\).

At \(e=1/2\), the low-cost incumbent strictly mobilizes, so \(d_L=1\); the high type is indifferent and may mix. Setting \(0.4+0.6d_H=0.7\) yields \(d_H=1/2\). The challenger then receives \(10(0.3)-3=0\) if it files and 0 otherwise, validating its \(e=1/2\) mix. The low-cost type's defense advantage is \(8(1/2)-2=2>0\), so it never prefers to deviate. The high-cost type's advantage is \(8(1/2)-4=0\), allowing its 50% mixture.

These are the only equilibrium probabilities: for \(e<1/4\) both types prefer not to defend, making filing strictly attractive; for \(1/4<e<1/2\) only the low type defends, giving \(q=0.4\) and still making filing attractive; for \(e>1/2\) both defend, giving \(q=1\) and making filing unattractive. At \(e=1/4\), even maximal low-type defense gives \(q\le0.4<0.7\). Consequently only the high-type indifference point \(e=1/2\) can support the entrant's mixing. The positive mobilization cost paid without entry is what makes the defense types' thresholds depend on the filing probability.

Assumptions

  • The two players choose simultaneously; the incumbent knows its own cost type, the challenger only its prior.

  • Filing costs 3 thousand dollars whether or not it succeeds, and gives gross 10 thousand only upon success.

  • Mobilization costs c thousand regardless of entry; the incumbent earns its existing-contract profit 8 thousand only if it keeps the contract.

  • Mixed choices are independent conditional on type, and both parties are risk-neutral.

Final Answer

Challenger files with probability 1/2; $2,000-cost incumbent always mobilizes; $4,000-cost incumbent mobilizes with probability 1/2. This is the unique Bayesian Nash equilibrium in behavioral strategies.

Game theory and strategic decisions
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A used-camera dealer values one standard camera at £100 and posts a buying price (bid) \(b\) and a selling price (ask) \(a\). Both must be chosen from fixed grids: \(b\in\{\text{£90},\text{£94},\text{£98}\}\) and \(a\in\{\text{£102},\text{£106},\text{£110}\}\). Exactly one customer then arrives, drawn from the following three types:

Type Chance Lowest bid at which they would sell a camera Highest ask at which they would buy one
I \(\frac{1}{2}\) £90 £102
II \(\frac{1}{3}\) £94 £106
III \(\frac{1}{6}\) £98 £110

A customer buys from the dealer if \(a\) is at most their buying limit. If not, they sell to the dealer if \(b\) is at least their selling threshold. Otherwise they leave. This buy-first rule applies even if both quotes would have been acceptable: one customer can make only one trade.

The dealer makes \(a-100\) pounds if a customer buys, \(100-b\) pounds if the customer sells, and zero otherwise. Which pair \((b,a)\) maximizes expected profit per arriving customer? Justify the optimum over the entire grid.

Hint 1

For each quote pair, classify the three customer types as buy, sell or leave before calculating profit. Never count both a buy and a sell from one type.

The £102 ask is bought by all three types. At ask £106, types II and III buy and type I can sell if the bid is £90 or above. Compare with the £110 ask and list the nine feasible expected profits.

For each type, apply the stipulated decision order: buy if \(a\) is within the type's buying limit; otherwise sell if \(b\) meets its selling threshold; otherwise leave. The dealer's profit from a purchase is \(100-b\) and from a sale is \(a-100\). Since there is exactly one customer, these actions are mutually exclusive.

Enumerating the three bids and three asks gives the following expected profits (pounds per customer), with rows \(b=90,94,98\) and columns \(a=102,106,110\):

b \ a £102 £106 £110
£90 2 8 \(\frac{20}{3}\)
£94 2 6 \(\frac{20}{3}\)
£98 2 4 \(\frac{10}{3}\)

For example, at \(b=\text{£90}\) and \(a=\text{£106}\), type I sells to the dealer for £90, yielding £10; types II and III buy for £106, yielding £6 each. Their probabilities are \(\frac{1}{2}\), \(\frac{1}{3}\) and \(\frac{1}{6}\), so expected profit is \(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\times10+\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)\times6+\left(\frac{1}{6}\right)\times6=5+2+1=\text{£8}\).

At ask £102 every type buys, earning £2 regardless of the bid. At ask £110, type III buys for a £10 margin; types I and II may sell at the bid if their thresholds are met. Applying those possibilities gives the last column. Every other feasible pair earns at most £\(\frac{20}{3}\) or £6, so £8 is a strict global maximum and \((90,106)\) is the unique optimal quote pair.

A model that independently added probabilities of selling at the bid and buying at the ask could double count types for which both quotes are appealing (for instance, type II at bid £94 and ask £106). The customer's buy-first choice, not two independent order streams, determines the actual trade.

Assumptions

  • Each customer belongs to exactly one of the three types, with probabilities summing to one.

  • The listed selling and buying thresholds are fixed for each type; if both quote conditions hold, the customer buys rather than sells.

  • The dealer can execute at most one transaction with this customer, has a £100 reference value, and faces no other costs or inventory constraints.

Final Answer

Unique maximizing quote pair: \(b=\text{£90}\), \(a=\text{£106}\), with expected profit £8 per customer.

Market making and microstructure
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A sponsor runs a repeatable even-money wager. Before each round, a player chooses a fraction f of their current bankroll to stake. The player wins with probability 70%, independently across rounds; on a win the stake is returned and the net bonus would normally equal the stake. However, the sponsor caps the net bonus at 20% of the bankroll immediately before that round. On a loss the entire stake is gone. There are no fees, and the player uses the same staking fraction each round.

What fraction maximises expected logarithmic bankroll growth per round? Show where the cap changes the objective, and derive the optimal fraction if the win probability is instead an arbitrary fixed p strictly between 0 and 1. Include the no-bet and bankruptcy boundaries.

Hint 1

Write the bankroll multipliers for a win and a loss. The winning multiplier stops improving once the stake reaches 20%.

Differentiate the log-growth function separately for \(0\le f\le0.20\) and \(0.20<f<1\); compare the derivative at the cap and the no-bet endpoint.

Let W be the bankroll immediately before a round. A loss gives \(W(1-f)\). A win gives \(W[1+\operatorname{min}(f,0.20)]\), because the cash bonus is capped at \(0.20W\) and the stake itself is returned. For \(0\le f<1\), expected log growth relative to log W is

\[g_{p}(f)=p\operatorname{log}[1+\operatorname{min}(f,0.20)]+(1-p)\operatorname{log}(1-f).\]

For \(0\le f\le0.20\) this is the ordinary even-money Kelly objective, with derivative \(g^{\prime}_{p}(f)=\frac{p}{1+f}-\frac{1-p}{1-f}=\frac{(2p-1)-f}{1-f^{2}}\), and strictly negative second derivative wherever \(0<p<1\). Its unconstrained maximiser is \(2p-1\). For \(f>0.20\), the win term is constant but the loss penalty continues to increase; indeed \(g^{\prime}_{p}(f)=-\frac{1-p}{1-f}<0\). Therefore staking more than 20% can never be optimal. On \([0,0.20]\) the concave objective is maximised by clipping the unconstrained value to that interval: \(f^{*}=\operatorname{max}(0,\operatorname{min}(2p-1,0.20))\). This is a global, not merely local, optimum because the function decreases strictly above the cap.

With \(p=0.70\), the uncapped Kelly fraction would be 0.40, so the cap binds: \(f^{*}=0.20\), at the kink where the left derivative is positive and the right derivative negative. If \(p\le\frac{1}{2}\), \(f^{*}=0\); if \(\frac{1}{2}<p<\frac{3}{5}\), \(f^{*}=2p-1\); if \(p\ge\frac{3}{5}\) (and \(p<1\)), \(f^{*}=0.20\). A fraction \(f=1\) has a strictly positive chance \(1-p\) of zero final wealth, hence expected log wealth \(-\infty\) and cannot be optimal. No borrowing or shorting is allowed, so negative f and \(f>1\) are excluded. This repeated-round solution depends on the cap scaling with current bankroll; a fixed dollar cap independent of wealth would produce a different dynamic problem.

Assumptions

  • Each wager has independent win probability p, with \(0<p<1\); odds are even money before the cap.

  • The cap is 20% of pre-round current wealth, not a fixed dollar amount, so the fractional problem repeats unchanged.

  • Allowed stakes are \(0\le f\le1\) with no leverage or short bets; zero wealth has log utility \(-\infty\).

  • A win returns staked principal in addition to the capped net bonus.

Final Answer

With \(p=0.70\) the optimal stake is \(f^{*}=0.20\) of the current bankroll. More generally, for \(0<p<1\), \(f^{*}=\operatorname{max}(0,\operatorname{min}(2p-1,0.20))\). A full-bankroll stake \(f=1\) has log growth \(-\infty\) whenever losses have positive probability.

Risk, covariance and diversification
8

A theatre has a stalls section with 240 seats and a balcony whose capacity is missing from the booking report. On Saturday, 75% of stalls seats and 50% of…

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