Squarepoint Capital Interview Questions 2026

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Squarepoint Capital Quant Interview Practice

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At a reception desk, a visitor takes exactly one loan key from a tray. The visitor picks key A with probability \(2/5\) and key B with probability \(3/5\). Both outcomes occur sometimes, but the reception policy forbids taking both keys on the same visit. A supervisor says, “The two keys are stored in different lockers, so whether A is borrowed and whether B is borrowed are independent events.” Is that claim mathematically possible under the lending rule? Identify the relevant probabilities, and state the exceptional circumstance in which two mutually exclusive events could also be independent.

Hint 1

Independence concerns event probabilities, not where the physical keys are stored.

Compare \(P(A\cap B)\), fixed by the one-key rule, with \(P(A)P(B)\), required if the events were independent.

Let \(A\) be the event “key A is borrowed on this visit” and \(B\) be “key B is borrowed.” By the one-key policy, the events cannot occur together, so
\[ P(A\cap B)=0. \]
Their individual probabilities are \(P(A)=2/5\) and \(P(B)=3/5\). Independence would require
\[ P(A\cap B)=P(A)P(B)=\frac25\frac35=\frac6{25}, \]
which is positive and contradicts exclusivity. Thus the supervisor's claim is false. The fact that the keys are stored separately does not change the process that selects exactly one key.

In general, disjoint events satisfy \(P(A\cap B)=0\). They are also independent exactly when \(P(A)P(B)=0\), which for probabilities means \(P(A)=0\) or \(P(B)=0\) (or both). Those zero-probability exceptions are excluded here because both keys are actually chosen with positive probability. This is a claim about events under the desk's loan rule, not a claim that two distinct physical mechanisms could never be independent in a different experiment.

Assumptions

  • Exactly one key is borrowed on each visit.

  • The two event probabilities are positive and sum to one.

Final Answer

No. \(P(A\text{ and }B)=0\) while \(P(A)P(B)=6/25>0\). Mutually exclusive events are independent only if at least one has probability zero.

Probability foundations
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A quality officer receives a box of five parts. Before opening it, she knows two equally likely possibilities for its contents: either exactly one part is defective, or exactly three parts are defective. Conditional on either composition, every arrangement of defective parts in the box is equally likely.

She randomly samples two parts without replacement. A test machine reports only ALARM if at least one of those two parts is defective, or CLEAR otherwise; it does not reveal how many were defective. The two tested parts are discarded. After seeing ALARM, she randomly takes one of the three remaining parts for a second test.

What is the probability that this later part is defective, conditional on the first ALARM? Account for both what the alarm tells her about the original box and which parts the first test removed.

Hint 1

Separate the cases of one defect and three defects initially. For each, list how many defective items might have been removed in the first two draws.

Use hypergeometric counts for the first sample. Weight the remaining defective fraction \(\frac{K-j}{3}\) by the probability of the alarm-producing first sample, then divide by \(P(\mathrm{ALARM})\).

Let K be the original defect count, equally likely to be 1 or 3; let J be the number of defects in the two discarded test parts. Conditional on \(K\), \(J\) is hypergeometric: \(P(J=j\mid K)=\frac{\binom{K}{j}\binom{5-K}{2-j}}{\binom{5}{2}}\), with \(\binom{5}{2}=10\). The alarm is the event \(J\ge1\).

For \(K=1\), \(J=1\) has probability \(\frac{\binom{1}{1}\binom{4}{1}}{10}=\frac{4}{10}\), and \(J=0\) has probability 6/10. Thus \(P(\mathrm{ALARM}\mid K=1)=\frac{2}{5}\). Whenever the alarm occurs in this case, the only defect has already been discarded, so the later part is certainly sound.

For \(K=3\), the first sample has \(J=0,1,2\) with probabilities 1/10, 6/10, 3/10 respectively. Consequently \(P(\mathrm{ALARM}\mid K=3)=\frac{9}{10}\). If \(J=1\), two of the three remaining parts are defective, so the next-draw defect probability is 2/3; if \(J=2\), only one of the three remains defective, giving probability 1/3.

The joint probability of an alarm and a defective later part is

\[\begin{aligned}P(\mathrm{ALARM}\cap\text{later defect})&=(\frac{1}{2})[(\frac{4}{10})\times0]+(\frac{1}{2})[(\frac{6}{10})(\frac{2}{3})+(\frac{3}{10})(\frac{1}{3})]\\&=(\frac{1}{2})(\frac{4}{10}+\frac{1}{10})=\frac{1}{4}\end{aligned}\].

The unconditional alarm probability is \(P(\mathrm{ALARM})=(\frac{1}{2})(\frac{2}{5})+(\frac{1}{2})(\frac{9}{10})=\frac{13}{20}\). Therefore

\[P(\text{later defect}\mid\mathrm{ALARM})=\frac{\frac{1}{4}}{\frac{13}{20}}=\frac{5}{13}\approx0.384615\].

As a direct verification, enumerate the two possible compositions, the ten equally likely unordered first samples in each, and the three equally likely remaining choices. Counting alarm-and-defect outcomes by these exact weights reproduces 1/4 and 13/20. Simply applying the alarm-updated original defect fraction would be wrong: the first test not only reveals aggregate information but removes the parts most likely to have caused that alarm.

Assumptions

  • The two original compositions have prior probabilities 1/2 each, and locations of defects are exchangeable within a composition.

  • The first two parts are sampled uniformly without replacement, discarded after testing, and the machine reveals only whether \(J\ge1\).

  • The later part is uniformly sampled from the three remaining parts, without replacing any discarded part.

Final Answer

\(P(\text{later defective}\mid\mathrm{ALARM})=\frac{5}{13}\approx38.46\%\).

Conditional probability
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Every fruit basket leaving a packing line contains exactly 20 pieces of fruit. The number of apples \(A\) varies from basket to basket; every other piece is a pear, so \(P=20-A\) for every basket. Across baskets, the variance of the apple count is known to be 9 fruit².

Without assuming any particular distribution of the apple counts, find \(\operatorname{Cov}(A,P)\) and \(\operatorname{Var}(A-P)\). Are apples and pears independent in this setup? Explain using the fixed basket size rather than inventing a separate random model for pears.

Hint 1

The pear count is not a new independent random draw. Express it entirely in terms of the apple count.

Substitute \(P=20-A\) into covariance and into the difference \(A-P=2A-20\). Use \(\operatorname{Var}(cX+d)=c^2\operatorname{Var}(X)\).

Because the basket total is fixed, \(P=20-A\) holds on every outcome. A constant has zero covariance with any random variable, so

\(\operatorname{Cov}(A,P)=\operatorname{Cov}(A,20-A)=-\operatorname{Var}(A)=\boxed{-9\text{ fruit}^2}\).

The count difference is \(A-P=A-(20-A)=2A-20\). Hence

\(\operatorname{Var}(A-P)=\operatorname{Var}(2A-20)=4\operatorname{Var}(A)=\boxed{36\text{ fruit}^2}\).

As a check using the general difference formula, \(\operatorname{Var}(P)=\operatorname{Var}(A)=9\), so \(\operatorname{Var}(A-P)=9+9-2(-9)=36\). Since \(\operatorname{Var}(A)>0\), \(\operatorname{Corr}(A,P)=-9/(3\cdot3)=-1\). The two counts cannot be independent: knowing the apple count determines the pear count exactly. Treating them as independent would incorrectly produce variance \(18\) for the difference.

Assumptions

  • Each basket has exactly 20 items, all apples or pears, and \(A\) has variance 9.

  • There is no additional randomness in the basket total or the pear count once \(A\) is known.

Final Answer

\(\operatorname{Cov}(A,P)=-9\) fruit², \(\operatorname{Var}(A-P)=36\) fruit². They are not independent; their correlation is −1.

Distributions, moments and tails
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A charity audits a random selection of expense receipts. Its computer is more likely to include certain transactions than others; each transaction is selected independently, and the probability of selection is recorded even when the receipt itself is not opened. The treasurer needs an estimate of total spending on four transactions, not merely the average among receipts examined.

Transaction Inclusion probability This audit's result
1 \(1/2\) selected; receipt shows $100
2 \(1/4\) selected; receipt shows $80
3 \(3/4\) not selected; amount unknown
4 \(1/2\) not selected; amount unknown

Treat each transaction's true dollar amount \(y_i\) as fixed, not random. Construct an unbiased estimator of total spending based only on selected receipts and calculate its value for this audit. Derive its design variance as a formula in the four amounts, then give an unbiased estimator of that variance which can be calculated from the same selected receipts. Why does multiplying the audited receipts' ordinary average by four not generally work?

Hint 1

Let \(I_i\) be 1 if transaction i is audited and 0 otherwise. Divide each observed amount by the probability that it would be observed.

Use \(E[I_i]=\pi_i\) and \(\operatorname{Var}(I_i)=\pi_i(1-\pi_i)\), with zero covariance between distinct inclusion indicators. To estimate the variance without missing amounts, find another inverse-probability-weighted sum.

Write \(T=\sum_{i=1}^{4}y_i\) for the fixed, unknown total, \(I_i\in\{0,1\}\) for independent selection indicators, and \(\pi_i=P(I_i=1)\). Because the treasurer observes \(y_i\) whenever \(I_i=1\), the inverse-probability-weighted (Horvitz–Thompson) estimator is
\[ \widehat T=\sum_{i=1}^4\frac{I_i y_i}{\pi_i}. \]
It is design-unbiased: \(E[\widehat T]=\sum_i E[I_i]y_i/\pi_i=\sum_i y_i=T\), where expectation is over the audit draw, not a random model for the spending itself.

Only transactions 1 and 2 were observed, so the realised estimate is
\[ \widehat T=\frac{100}{1/2}+\frac{80}{1/4} =200+320=\boxed{\$520}. \]

Independence of the four inclusions gives zero cross-covariance, hence the true design variance for this fixed ledger is
\[ \operatorname{Var}(\widehat T) =\sum_i\frac{y_i^2}{\pi_i^2}\operatorname{Var}(I_i) =\boxed{\sum_i\frac{1-\pi_i}{\pi_i}y_i^2}. \]
The treasurer cannot evaluate that numerical variance exactly without the missing \(y_3,y_4\). But \(E[I_i y_i^2(1-\pi_i)/\pi_i^2]=(1-\pi_i)y_i^2/\pi_i\), so an unbiased estimated variance is
\[ \widehat V=\sum_{i:I_i=1}\frac{1-\pi_i}{\pi_i^2}y_i^2. \]
For this audit,
\[ \widehat V=\frac{1/2}{(1/2)^2}(100)^2 +\frac{3/4}{(1/4)^2}(80)^2 =20{,}000+76{,}800=\boxed{96{,}800\text{ dollars}^2}. \]
It is a random estimate of variance, not a claim that the unknown realised ledger's variance must equal 96,800.

The two observed receipts average \(\frac{\$(100+80)}{2}=\$90\), and multiplying by four gives $360. That treats audited receipts as an equally representative sample of all four transactions, which they are not: their inclusion probabilities differ. If larger payments tend to be selected more often, an unweighted audited average especially overrepresents them; even without that trend, unequal inclusion probabilities invalidate its general unbiasedness.

Assumptions

  • The full ledger consists of four fixed nonnegative transaction amounts, but only the selected amounts are disclosed to the estimator.

  • The inclusion probabilities (1/2,1/4,3/4,1/2) are strictly positive, known in advance, and each inclusion indicator is independent.

  • There are no missing or misreported selected receipts and no requirement that at least one transaction be selected.

  • Variance refers to repeated draws of the audit sample over the same fixed ledger; its unbiased estimator need not be nonrandom.

Final Answer

Horvitz–Thompson total \(\widehat T=\sum_i I_i y_i/\pi_i\), here $520. Design variance \(\sum_i (1-\pi_i)y_i^2/\pi_i\). Unbiased variance estimator \(\widehat V=\sum_{i:I_i=1}(1-\pi_i)y_i^2/\pi_i^2\), here 96,800 dollars².

Estimation and likelihood
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A study tests whether a treatment raises a normally distributed measurement above its known baseline. Under the null hypothesis, the four planned patient measurements \(X_1,\dots,X_4\) are independent \(N(0,1)\); under the alternative they have positive common mean and the same known variance.

Investigators are allowed to look once after two patients and, if they have not rejected, again after four. They use the cumulative statistics

\[Z_1=(X_1+X_2)/\sqrt2,\qquad Z_2=(X_1+X_2+X_3+X_4)/2.\]

At either look they reject for \(Z_i>c\) and stop testing. A single-look one-sided 5% threshold is \(c\approx1.64485\).

If that unadjusted threshold is used at both looks, what is the overall false-positive probability? Find a common threshold \(c\) that makes the overall type-I error 5%, accounting for the fact that the final statistic includes the first two observations. A numerical answer with a justified integral is sufficient.

Hint 1

The rejection event is a union: first-look rejection or final-look rejection. The two events overlap, because the final statistic contains the interim data.

Compute \(\operatorname{Cov}(Z_1,Z_2)\), condition on \(Z_1=z\), and integrate \(P(Z_2>c\mid Z_1=z)\) over \(z>c\). Subtract the joint upper-tail probability from \(2[1-\Phi(c)]\).

Under the null, both \(Z_1\) and \(Z_2\) are standard normal. Their overlap in the first two observations gives

\[ \operatorname{Cov}(Z_1,Z_2)=\frac{\operatorname{Var}(X_1+X_2)}{2\sqrt2}=\frac1{\sqrt2}=:\rho. \]

Thus the statistics are jointly normal with correlation \(\rho=1/\sqrt2\), not independent. The trial rejects if \(Z_1>c\) or \(Z_2>c\); stopping at the first rejection does not change this union event. By inclusion–exclusion, under the null

\[ \begin{aligned} \alpha(c)&=P(Z_1>c\text{ or }Z_2>c)\\ &=2[1-\Phi(c)]-P(Z_1>c,Z_2>c). \end{aligned} \]

The conditional normal distribution is \(Z_2\mid Z_1=z\sim N(\rho z,1-\rho^2)\), where \(1-\rho^2=1/2\). Hence an explicit one-dimensional integral for the joint tail is

\[ P(Z_1>c,Z_2>c)=\int_c^\infty\phi(z)\,\Phi\!\left(\frac{\rho z-c}{\sqrt{1-\rho^2}}\right)dz =\int_c^\infty \phi(z)\Phi(z-\sqrt2c)\,dz. \]

Here \(\phi\) and \(\Phi\) are the standard normal density and CDF. At the unadjusted one-sided 5% cutoff \(c=\Phi^{-1}(0.95)\approx1.6448536\), each marginal rejection probability is 0.05, and numerical quadrature gives a joint upper-tail probability about 0.0199245. Thus \(\alpha(c)=0.10-0.0199245=\boxed{0.0800755}\), approximately 8.01%.

For a common boundary with total error exactly 0.05, solve the displayed continuous, strictly decreasing union-tail function \(\alpha(c)=0.05\). Numerical integration and one-dimensional root finding give \(\boxed{c\approx1.8754233}\). The resulting false-positive probability is 0.050000 to the shown precision. As a conservative independent check, using \(\Phi^{-1}(0.975)\approx1.959964\) at both looks bounds the union by 0.05 via Bonferroni; the actual correlated-test error there is about 0.041559. No independent-look approximation is used.

Assumptions

  • The same four observations are planned before the trial and are iid \(N(0,1)\) under \(H_0\).

  • The null variance is known, the alternative mean is strictly positive, and rejection is one-sided.

  • The test stops after interim rejection and otherwise uses all four observations at its final look.

  • The same common critical value is used at both looks; exact familywise type-I error is measured under \(H_0\).

Final Answer

The two statistics have null correlation \(1/\sqrt2\). Reusing the one-look cutoff \(1.64485\) at both looks gives false-positive probability approximately \(0.08008\) (8.01%). An exactly calibrated common boundary is \(c\approx1.87542\), giving overall 5% type-I error.

Statistical inference and testing
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A scholarship committee records two strengths for each applicant: strong grades \(G\in\{0,1\}\) and strong volunteering \(V\in\{0,1\}\). Across all applicants, G and V are independent, and each equals 1 with probability 1/2.

The committee awards a scholarship to anyone who has at least one strength: \(G+V\ge1\). A researcher then studies only scholarship recipients and fits an ordinary linear regression of \(V\) on \(G\), including an intercept. Among recipients, what are \(\operatorname{Cov}(G,V)\) and the regression slope? Compare them with the full applicant population. Does a negative selected-sample slope imply that having good grades causes less volunteering?

Hint 1

List the four possible (G,V) pairs in the population. All have probability 1/4, but (0,0) never receives a scholarship.

Among selected applicants, the remaining three pairs are equally likely. Compute \(\mathbb{E}[G]\), \(\mathbb{E}[V]\), \(\mathbb{E}[GV]\) and \(\operatorname{Var}(G)\), then use \(\text{slope}=\operatorname{Cov}(G,V)/\operatorname{Var}(G)\).

Before selection, independent fair binary strengths yield the four states (0,0), (0,1), (1,0), (1,1), each with probability 1/4. The scholarship criterion excludes only (0,0), so \(P(\text{selected})=3/4\), and the other three states each have conditional probability 1/3.

Among recipients,

\[\mathbb{E}[G\mid S]=2/3,\qquad\mathbb{E}[V\mid S]=2/3,\qquad\mathbb{E}[GV\mid S]=1/3\].

The conditional covariance is therefore

\(\operatorname{Cov}(G,V\mid S)=1/3-(2/3)(2/3)=\)\(-1/9\).

Because \(G\) is Bernoulli with success probability \(2/3\) among recipients, \(\operatorname{Var}(G\mid S)=(2/3)(1/3)=2/9\). For linear regression with an intercept, the population least-squares slope is

\(\beta_S=\operatorname{Cov}(G,V\mid S)/\operatorname{Var}(G\mid S)=(-1/9)/(2/9)=\)\(-1/2\).

A direct crosscheck is \(\mathbb{E}[V\mid G=0,S]=1\) (such recipients must have \(V=1\)) and \(\mathbb{E}[V\mid G=1,S]=1/2\), so the difference in group means is \(-1/2\).

In the full applicant pool, independence gives \(\operatorname{Cov}(G,V)=0\) and slope 0 because \(\operatorname{Var}(G)=1/4>0\). Conditioning on scholarship receipt selects on a common consequence of \(G\) and \(V\) (a collider). Once a recipient has weak grades, strong volunteering is guaranteed, whereas strong-grade recipients can have either volunteering status. The resulting negative association is a selection artifact; this model contains no causal effect of grades on volunteering.

Assumptions

  • G and V are independent fair Bernoulli indicators in the applicant population.

  • Scholarship selection is deterministic given \(G+V\ge1\); no additional admissions discretion or missing data exist.

  • Regression is an intercept-including population least-squares projection within the selected group, not a finite-sample noisy estimate.

Final Answer

Among recipients, \(\operatorname{Cov}(G,V)=-1/9\) and the regression slope of \(V\) on \(G\) is \(-1/2\). In the full population both are zero. The negative association is created by selecting on \(G+V\ge1\), not by a causal trade-off.

Regression and predictive modelling
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A council installs a new appointment-booking system in East district at the start of period 1. West district will receive it later, at the start of period 3. The table gives average waiting times (minutes) in three observation periods; West has not yet received the system in any shown period:

Period −1: East 22, West 14.
Period 0: East 23, West 16.
Period 2: East 18, West 20.

An announcement about East's installation may already affect East in period 0. Suppose the untreated mean in each district is a district constant plus a time shock common to both districts, and allow East additionally to have a district-specific linear trend \(\delta\) per period. The system changes East's waiting time by a constant \(\tau\) from period 1 onward, while an anticipation effect a applies in period 0 only. West has neither effect before period 3.

Calculate the usual difference-in-differences (DiD) contrast using periods 0 and 2. Express that contrast and the earlier −1-to-0 placebo contrast in terms of \(\tau\), \(\delta\) and a. What treatment effect would you infer if \(\delta=0\) and \(a=-1\)? Give a different \((\delta,a,\tau)\) triple consistent with the same data, and explain what the pre-period check can and cannot establish.

Hint 1

For each contrast, subtract West's change from East's change. The period-0 observation is not necessarily an untreated East baseline because anticipation may already operate.

Write \(E_t=\mu_E+\lambda_t+\delta t+a\cdot\mathbf{1}\{t=0\}+\tau\cdot\mathbf{1}\{t\ge1\}\), \(W_t=\mu_W+\lambda_t\) for shown periods. Substitute \(t=-1,0,2\) in both DiD calculations.

The ordinary DiD for periods 0 to 2 is
\(D=(E_{2}-E_{0})-(W_{2}-W_{0})=(18-23)-(20-16)=-5-4=-9\) minutes.
The earlier placebo contrast is
\(D_{\mathrm{pre}}=(E_{0}-E_{-1})-(W_{0}-W_{-1})=(23-22)-(16-14)=1-2=-1\) minute.

To see what these quantities identify, parameterize untreated East by \(\mu_E+\lambda_t+\delta t\) and untreated West by \(\mu_W+\lambda_t\), where \(\lambda_t\) is an arbitrary shared time shock. Add a only to \(E_0\) (advance response to publicity) and \(\tau\) to \(E_t\) for \(t\ge1\). In the period-0-to-2 DiD the district constants and shared time shocks cancel, leaving
\(D=[(2\delta+\tau)-(0\delta+a)]-0=\tau+2\delta-a\).
In the −1-to-0 contrast there is no installed treatment, so
\(D_{\mathrm{pre}}=[(0\delta+a)-(-\delta)]-0=\delta+a\).
Thus the observed data give the two equations \(\tau+2\delta-a=-9\) and \(\delta+a=-1\), which do not determine all three unknowns. Under the additional restrictions \(\delta=0\) and \(a=-1\), \(\tau=D+a=-10\) minutes.

But another coherent explanation is \(a=0\) and \(\delta=-1\), which forces \(\tau=-7\) minutes because \(-7+2(-1)-0=-9\). It also gives \(\delta+a=-1\) as observed. The underlying district intercept can be adjusted to fit the recorded levels under either account, without changing the common shocks. This demonstrates the confounding, not just a verbal warning.

If one instead imposed no anticipation and parallel untreated trends (\(a=\delta=0\)), DiD would identify \(\tau\) and equal −9, but that joint model would predict \(D_{\mathrm{pre}}=0\), contrary to this pre-period comparison. The observed −1 warns that at least one of the assumed features may fail. More pre-periods can help diagnose past trend differences, yet even a perfectly flat pre-period gap cannot prove that a post-period common-trend assumption will hold. West's later rollout is irrelevant to the control contrast here precisely because it has not yet received the system in periods 0 or 2.

Assumptions

  • Period numbers −1,0,1,2,3 represent equally spaced intervals, so East's differential untreated trend contributes \(\delta\) per period.

  • Anticipation enters East only in period 0; the installed system's effect \(\tau\) starts in period 1 and is constant through period 2.

  • West is untreated and has no anticipation throughout the three observed periods, before its period-3 installation.

  • Common time shocks are unrestricted but affect both districts equally; any East-specific linear drift is represented by \(\delta\).

Final Answer

The period-0-to-2 DiD is −9 minutes, with \(D=\tau+2\delta-a\). The earlier DiD is −1 minute, equal to \(\delta+a\). If \(\delta=0\) and \(a=-1\), \(\tau=-10\) minutes. The alternative \(\delta=-1\), \(a=0\), \(\tau=-7\) minutes also matches both contrasts; the effect is not identified without restrictions.

Research design and model validation
8

A call centre returns to service with 180 requests already waiting. New calls arrive at a steady average rate of 24 per hour, and each on-duty agent completes…

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