Cubist Systematic Strategies Interview Questions 2026

100 Questions Unlock all questions ↓
Filter
Topic area
Difficulty

Filters apply to the free questions below.

Practice Bank

Cubist Systematic Strategies Quant Interview Practice

↗

A quality check generates three binary stamps. First it flips two independent fair coins, writing \(X=1\) for heads on the first and \(Y=1\) for heads on the second (tails are 0). It then sets a third stamp \(Z=1\) if the two original stamps differ, and \(Z=0\) if they agree. There is no third coin flip.

A manager notices that each stamp individually has a 50% chance of being 1 and claims that every pair of stamps is independent, so the probability that all three equal 1 must be \(1/8\). Verify or refute each part of that claim by listing the possible triples.

Hint 1

There are only four equally likely outcomes of the original two coin flips. Write the third stamp for each of them.

For each pair, check the four combinations 00,01,10,11; then inspect whether 111 is among the possible triples.

The only randomness comes from the two original fair, independent bits \((X,Y)\). The rule for the third bit is exclusive OR: \(Z=X\oplus Y\). The complete sample space is
\[ \begin{array}{c|c|c} X&Y&Z\\\hline 0&0&0\\ 0&1&1\\ 1&0&1\\ 1&1&0 \end{array} \qquad\text{(each row has probability }1/4\text{).} \]
Each of X, Y and Z equals 1 in exactly two of the four rows, so each has probability 1/2 of being 1. For the pair \((X,Y)\), the four combinations are the four equally likely generating coin outcomes. For \((X,Z)\), the rows give \((0,0),(0,1),(1,1),(1,0)\), each with probability 1/4. For \((Y,Z)\), they give \((0,0),(1,1),(0,1),(1,0)\), again each with probability 1/4. Since all individual marginals equal 1/2, each pair's joint probabilities factor as \((1/2)(1/2)=1/4\): every pair is independent.

However, there is no outcome 111: if \(X=Y=1\), then they agree and \(Z=0\) by construction. Therefore
\[ P(X=1,Y=1,Z=1)=\boxed{0}\ne\tfrac12\cdot\tfrac12\cdot\tfrac12=\tfrac18. \]
The generating relationship also gives \(X\oplus Y\oplus Z=0\) on every trial. Pairwise independence does not remove a constraint linking all three variables simultaneously, so the manager's final multiplication is invalid.

Assumptions

  • X and Y are independent fair Bernoulli bits.

  • Z is exactly the XOR of X and Y, with no further noise or randomisation.

  • The claim concerns pairwise independence and full three-way factorisation, which are different properties.

Final Answer

All three pairs are independent, but the triple is not jointly independent. Possible equally likely outcomes are 000, 011, 101, 110, so \(P(X=Y=Z=1)=0\), not \(\frac18\).

Probability foundations
↗

Two kiosks independently seal cash in envelopes for a courier. Kiosk X puts $20, $40 or $60 in its envelope with probabilities \(1/2\), \(1/3\) and \(1/6\). Kiosk Y puts $10, $30 or $50 in its envelope with probabilities \(1/4\), \(1/2\) and \(1/4\). Within either kiosk exactly one listed amount is selected; the kiosks make independent selections.

The courier is assigned the envelope from X, but may not open it. A dispatcher, who can see both amounts, reports only that the two envelopes contain $70 in total. Conditional on that exact report, what is the probability that the courier's own envelope contains at least $40? Keep track of which kiosk prepared which envelope; combinations giving the same total need not have the same probability.

Hint 1

List the possible ordered pairs \((X,Y)\) that add to \(70\). Do not assign them equal probabilities.

The only pairs are \((20,50)\), \((40,30)\) and \((60,10)\). Multiply each kiosk's original probability and normalise the three weights before testing \(X\ge40\).

Only three ordered pairs produce the reported total \(X+Y=70\):

\((X,Y)\) in dollars Independent probability Does \(X\ge40\)?
\((20,50)\) \((1/2)(1/4)=1/8=3/24\) No
\((40,30)\) \((1/3)(1/2)=1/6=4/24\) Yes
\((60,10)\) \((1/6)(1/4)=1/24\) Yes

The probability of the report is \(3/24+4/24+1/24=8/24=1/3\). The joint probability of the report and \(X\ge40\) is \((4+1)/24=5/24\). Therefore

\(\Pr(X\ge40\mid X+Y=70)=\frac{5/24}{8/24}=\boxed{5/8}\).

Equivalently, conditioning changes the weights of the feasible ordered pairs to \(3/8\), \(4/8\) and \(1/8\), which sum to one. Their last two probabilities add to \(5/8\). The three feasible combinations are not equally likely: the two kiosks use unequal distributions. One cannot infer this answer from the total alone without those original weights and the independence assumption.

Assumptions

  • X and Y are independent; each kiosk uses its stated discrete distribution once.

  • The dispatcher truthfully reports the exact sum $70, and the courier is assigned kiosk X's envelope.

Final Answer

The conditional probability is \(5/8=62.5\%\).

Conditional probability
↗

A bicycle courier usually crosses a bridge without delay. A delivery takes 15 minutes with probability 90%, but on 10% of trips a prolonged bridge closure makes it take 135 minutes. These are the only two possibilities.

The dispatcher wants two different numbers: the median delivery time, for a promise describing what at least half of customers experience, and the mean time per delivery, for estimating the total minutes couriers will spend on a large number of jobs. Find both. Explain why using the same number for the two decisions could be misleading.

Hint 1

The median is determined by the cumulative probability at 15 minutes, not by the magnitude of the rare closure time.

For average workload, multiply each duration by its probability and add. Then compare that expectation with the 50th percentile.

The distribution has \(P(T=15)=0.9\) and \(P(T=135)=0.1\). At 15 minutes the cumulative distribution already reaches \(P(T\le15)=0.9\ge0.5\), whereas \(P(T<15)=0\). Hence the population median is exactly 15 minutes (and the 50th percentile is unambiguous).

The expected delivery duration is \(E[T]=0.9\times15+0.1\times135=13.5+13.5=27\) minutes. As a cross-check, across 100 comparable independent deliveries, the expected total is \(90\times15+10\times135=2{,}700\) minutes, or 27 minutes per delivery; the distribution's probability statement, not the actual count in a particular group of 100, is what makes this an expectation.

Fifteen minutes describes an outcome that at least half, indeed 90%, of customers meet. The longer closure contributes heavily to total courier workload even though it occurs only one time in ten, so using the 15-minute median to budget aggregate working minutes would understate expected demand. Conversely, the 27-minute mean is not the typical observed duration: no individual delivery in this model lasts 27 minutes.

Assumptions

  • Delivery durations take exactly the two stated values, with probabilities 0.9 and 0.1.

  • The 'typical-customer' target is the population median, while workload is governed by expected total minutes.

Final Answer

Median delivery time = \(15\) minutes; mean delivery time = \(27\) minutes.

Distributions, moments and tails
↗

A warehouse has an unknown integer number \(N\) of reusable crates, and its stock does not change during an audit. An auditor selects six distinct crates uniformly without replacement, attaches a tag to each, and returns all six to the stock. Before a second sample, each attached tag survives independently with known probability 3/4; a lost tag is indistinguishable from a never-tagged crate. The auditor then samples six distinct crates, again uniformly without replacement and independently of the first draw conditional on the fixed population. Exactly two visible surviving tags appear in this second sample.

Construct the likelihood for \(N\), properly accounting for tagged crates recaptured but no longer visibly tagged. Over all integers \(N\ge6\), what is the maximum-likelihood population estimate? Explain what role the known survival probability plays.

Hint 1

The observation “two visible tags” does not necessarily mean only two of the first six crates were recaptured. Some recaptured tags may have detached.

Sum over the unobserved true recapture count \(r\). The hypergeometric term counts which original crates return; a binomial factor gives the chance exactly two of those \(r\) still display tags.

Let \(R\) be the number of the original six crates in the second sample. For every integer \(N\ge6\),
\[ P(R=r\mid N)=\frac{\binom6r\binom{N-6}{6-r}}{\binom N6}, \qquad \max(0,12-N)\le r\le6. \]
Given \(R=r\), independent tag survival makes the observed visible-tag count \(K\sim\operatorname{Binomial}(r,3/4)\). Therefore the marginal likelihood for the observed \(K=2\), rather than an incorrectly observed \(R=2\), is
\[ L(N)=P(K=2\mid N) =\sum_{r=2}^{6}\frac{\binom6r\binom{N-6}{6-r}}{\binom N6} \binom r2\left(\frac34\right)^2\left(\frac14\right)^{r-2}, \]
where \(\binom nk=0\) for infeasible \(k\). It includes recaptured crates whose tags became invisible.

Exact rational evaluation over \(N=6,7,\ldots,26\) gives the unique maximum at
\[ L(13)=\frac{902205}{2342912}\approx0.38507848, \]
with the closest competitor \(L(14)=1578285/4100096\approx0.38493855\). To rule out arbitrarily large populations rather than stopping an arbitrary numerical search, observe that the event \(K=2\) implies \(\binom K2\ge1\). Thus
\[ L(N)\le E\!\left[\binom K2\right] =\binom62\frac{6\cdot5}{N(N-1)}\left(\frac34\right)^2 =\frac{4050}{16N(N-1)}. \]
For all \(N\ge27\), this is at most \(4050/(16\cdot27\cdot26)=75/208\approx0.36058<L(13)\). Hence \(\boxed{\widehat N_{\rm ML}=13}\) globally over the allowed integer domain. The survival probability enters inside the likelihood, not as a deterministic correction to the observed recapture count. Its being known is critical to this one-parameter estimate; with unknown survival, one small audit does not generally identify stock size and survival separately. The closeness of the likelihoods at 13 and 14 also warns against treating the MLE as an exact count.

Assumptions

  • N is a fixed integer at least 6; first and second samples each draw six distinct crates uniformly without replacement.

  • The second sample is independent of the first selection conditional on the unchanged stock and known first-six tag statuses.

  • Each original tag remains visible independently with probability 3/4, independently of sampling.

Final Answer

\(\widehat N_{\rm ML}=13\) crates. With \(R\) the number of the original six recaptured, \(R\sim\operatorname{Hypergeom}(N,6,6)\), and \(K\mid R=r\sim\operatorname{Binomial}(r,3/4)\). Thus \(L(N)=\sum_{r=2}^6 \frac{\binom6r\binom{N-6}{6-r}}{\binom N6}\binom r2(3/4)^2(1/4)^{r-2}\), omitting impossible terms; it is maximized at 13.

Estimation and likelihood
↗

A climbing-equipment maker tests 30 independently selected clips from a stable manufacturing process. Each clip either fails or passes a standard load test. None of the 30 clips fails. The quality lead wants a one-sided 95% frequentist confidence upper bound on the unknown probability p that a randomly produced clip fails, assuming every clip has the same failure probability and tests are independent.

Find the exact upper bound and a percentage approximation. Explain why the observed failure rate of zero does not justify saying \(p=0\). What repeated-sampling statement supports the bound?

Hint 1

If the true per-clip failure probability were p, what is the chance that 30 independent tests would show no failures?

Set that zero-failure probability equal to 0.05, and solve \((1-p)^{30}=0.05\) for \(p\).

Let K be the number of failures among \(n=30\) clips. Under the stipulated model, \(K\sim\operatorname{Binomial}(30,p)\). Observing \(K=0\) has probability \(P_p(K=0)=(1-p)^{30}\). The one-sided exact upper bound at confidence \(1-\alpha=0.95\) is obtained by inverting the zero-count lower-tail test: set \((1-p_U)^{30}=\alpha=0.05\). Hence
\(p_U=1-0.05^{1/30}\approx0.0950\), or about 9.50%.

The bound is exact in its binomial tail calculation; the percentage is rounded. For every \(p>p_U\), the probability of observing a flawless 30-test sample is \((1-p)^{30}<0.05\), so the observed sample would be a less-than-5%-likely outcome under such a p. A 0/30 sample is compatible with nonzero p; it is not evidence that failure is impossible.

In repeated independent 30-clip samples, the full one-sided bound obtained by inverting the corresponding binomial tests has at least 95% coverage of a fixed true p (the discrete binomial model may make coverage conservative). This is not a statement that, after seeing the data, there is a 95% probability that the fixed p lies below p_U. As a boundary check, if \(p=p_U\) then the chance of \(K=0\) is exactly 0.05; if \(p=0\) a flawless sample is certain and the zero-count bound still includes it.

Assumptions

  • Each clip is a fresh independent Bernoulli test with the same underlying p.

  • Thirty clips were selected without adaptive stopping, and the test has no false positives or false negatives.

  • The requested bound is a one-sided exact frequentist confidence limit, not a Bayesian credible interval.

Final Answer

\(p\le1-0.05^{1/30}\approx9.50\%\) is the one-sided exact 95% upper confidence limit given zero failures (under independent, common-p Bernoulli sampling).

Statistical inference and testing
↗

Three water meters measure a quantity that should obey the through-origin calibration model \(Y_i=\beta x_i+\varepsilon_i\). The known inputs are \(x=(1,2,3)\), and the observed meter readings are \(y=(2,5,7)\). Each error has mean zero, errors are independent, and their known variances are respectively 1, 4 and 9 in squared reading units. There is no unknown intercept or additional calibration offset.

Compute the ordinary least-squares (OLS) and variance-weighted least-squares (WLS) estimates of \(\beta\). Show the weighted normal equation and compare the estimators' variances under the stated model. Is OLS biased just because the meters have different noise levels?

Hint 1

For the no-intercept model, OLS solves \(\sum x_i(y_i-\beta x_i)=0\), while WLS solves \(\sum\frac{x_i(y_i-\beta x_i)}{\sigma_i^{2}}=0\).

Compute \(\operatorname{Var}(\sum a_i\varepsilon_i)\) as \(\sum a_i^{2}\sigma_i^{2}\). The WLS slope is \(\frac{\sum x_i y_i/\sigma_i^{2}}{\sum x_i^{2}/\sigma_i^{2}}\). For these particular variances, it also equals the ordinary average of \(\frac{y_i}{x_i}\); that simplification is special to \(\sigma_i^{2}=x_i^{2}\).

Let \(\sigma^{2}=(1,4,9)\). For a through-origin fit, unweighted least squares minimises \(\sum (y_i-\beta x_i)^{2}\). Its normal equation is \(\sum x_i y_i=\beta\sum x_i^{2}\), giving

\(\hat{\beta}_{\mathrm{OLS}}=\frac{1\cdot2+2\cdot5+3\cdot7}{1^{2}+2^{2}+3^{2}}=\)\(\frac{33}{14}\approx2.3571\).

WLS minimises \(\sum\frac{(y_i-\beta x_i)^{2}}{\sigma_i^{2}}\) and hence satisfies the weighted normal equation

\[\sum\frac{x_i(y_i-\beta x_i)}{\sigma_i^{2}}=0\].

So

\[\hat{\beta}_{\mathrm{WLS}}=\frac{\sum x_i y_i/\sigma_i^{2}}{\sum x_i^{2}/\sigma_i^{2}}\]
\[=\frac{2+\frac{5}{2}+\frac{7}{3}}{1+1+1}\]
=\(\frac{41/6}{3}=\frac{41}{18}\approx2.2778\).

For unbiasedness, substitute \(Y_i=\beta x_i+\varepsilon_i\) into either slope. Since \(\mathbb{E}[\varepsilon_i\mid x]=0\), both are \(\beta\) plus a zero-mean weighted sum of the errors. Their variances are not equal:

\[\operatorname{Var}(\hat{\beta}_{\mathrm{OLS}})=\frac{\sum x_i^{2}\sigma_i^{2}}{(\sum x_i^{2})^{2}}\]
\[=\frac{1\cdot1+4\cdot4+9\cdot9}{14^{2}}\]
=\(\frac{98}{196}=\)\(\frac{1}{2}\),

\(\operatorname{Var}(\hat{\beta}_{\mathrm{WLS}})=\frac{1}{\sum x_i^{2}/\sigma_i^{2}}=\)\(\frac{1}{3}\).

In general, for independent errors with known positive variances and a fixed design, WLS weights each residual by its inverse variance. The Cauchy–Schwarz inequality implies that any linear unbiased slope \(\tilde{\beta}=\sum a_iY_i\) with \(\sum a_i x_i=1\) obeys \(\operatorname{Var}(\tilde{\beta})=\sum a_i^{2}\sigma_i^{2}\ge\frac{1}{\sum x_i^{2}/\sigma_i^{2}}\), attained by WLS. Thus OLS remains unbiased under exogeneity; the issue here is efficiency, not bias. If error means depended on x, that separate violation could produce bias.

Assumptions

  • The no-intercept model is correctly specified and the design \(x=(1,2,3)\) is fixed.

  • The errors have zero mean, are independent across observations, and have known variances (1,4,9).

  • Variances are measured in squared reading units and do not depend on the observed response.

Final Answer

OLS \(\hat{\beta}=\frac{33}{14}\approx2.3571\), \(\operatorname{Var}(\hat{\beta})=\frac{1}{2}\). WLS \(\hat{\beta}=\frac{41}{18}\approx2.2778\), \(\operatorname{Var}(\hat{\beta})=\frac{1}{3}\). Both are unbiased; WLS has lower variance under the known unequal-error variances.

Regression and predictive modelling
↗

A service company has validated a binary error predictor on existing branches. Each validation customer belongs to group A, B or C with probabilities 50%, 30%, 20%, respectively. Within those groups, the predictor's probabilities of making an error are 10%, 40%, 80%. Assume individual validation observations are independent.

In the proposed new region, the group mix will instead be 20%, 30%, 50%. Assume the error probability within each group stays unchanged. Let \(L=1\) for an error and \(L=0\) otherwise.

Compute the new region's error rate and derive a per-customer importance-weighted validation estimator for it. For a sample of \(n=100\) independent validation customers, find that estimator's theoretical variance and the second moment of its importance weights. Finally, would the method remain justified if the new region included a customer group never appearing in validation, with an unknown error rate? Explain.

Hint 1

Under unchanged conditional error rates, target risk is the target group-weighted average. To use validation observations, multiply each observed error by target group frequency divided by validation group frequency.

Because \(L\) is binary, \(L^{2}=L\). Calculate \(\mathbb E_{\mathrm{validation}}[(wL)^{2}]\), subtract the square of the target mean, then divide by \(n\). Check whether \(\frac{q(g)}{p(g)}\) can exist for every target group.

Write \(p=(0.5,0.3,0.2)\) for validation group probabilities, \(q=(0.2,0.3,0.5)\) for target probabilities and \(r=(0.1,0.4,0.8)\) for the conditional error probabilities, which are assumed invariant across regions. The target error risk is

\[R_q=\sum_g q_g r_g=0.2(0.1)+0.3(0.4)+0.5(0.8)=\boxed{0.54}.\]

The unweighted validation population error rate is instead \(R_p=0.5(0.1)+0.3(0.4)+0.2(0.8)=0.33\). To transport it, use group weights \(w_g=q_g/p_g\), giving \(w_A=0.4\), \(w_B=1\) and \(w_C=2.5\). For independent validation data \((G_i,L_i)\), define

\[\widehat R_q=\frac1n\sum_{i=1}^n w_{G_i}L_i.\]

Since \(E_p[w_G L]=\sum_g p_g(q_g/p_g)r_g=\sum_g q_g r_g=R_q\), this estimator is unbiased for the target risk under the stated conditional-invariance assumption. Because \(L\in\{0,1\}\), its square equals itself, so

\[E_p[(w_GL)^2]=\sum_g p_gw_g^2r_g=0.5(0.4^2)(0.1)+0.3(1^2)(0.4)+0.2(2.5^2)(0.8)=1.128.\]

It follows that

\[\operatorname{Var}(\widehat R_q)=\frac{1.128-0.54^2}{n}=\frac{0.8364}{n}.\]

At \(n=100\), the variance is \(0.008364\), with standard deviation about \(0.0915\) (9.15 percentage points). The second moment of the weights themselves is \(E_p[w_G^2]=0.5(0.4^2)+0.3(1)^2+0.2(2.5)^2=1.63\), larger than \(E_p[w_G]^2=1\). This highlights how target-heavy groups receive amplified influence and can inflate sampling uncertainty; simply plugging in the old 33% rate misses both the changed target and the uncertainty cost.

Finally, if some group D has \(q_D>0\) but \(p_D=0\), there is no finite importance weight \(q_D/p_D\) and no observed validation error outcomes for D. The target risk contribution \(q_D E[L\mid D]\) cannot be recovered from these validation data. Two otherwise identical worlds with different unobserved D error rates would yield the same validation distribution but different target risk. This support/positivity failure requires external information or new observations; weighting alone cannot repair it.

Assumptions

  • Validation observations are independent draws from the given group distribution and binary conditional error probabilities.

  • Only the group proportions shift; the conditional error distribution for each supported group remains invariant.

  • The weighted estimator uses known population group proportions rather than weights estimated from this sample.

  • Variance is the repeated-sampling variance at \(n=100\); it is not a confidence interval guarantee.

Final Answer

Target error rate 0.54; weights \((0.4,1,2.5)\); estimator \(\frac1n\sum_i w(G_i)L_i\) has variance \(\frac{0.8364}{n}\), or 0.008364 for \(n=100\); \(\mathbb E_{\mathrm{validation}}[w^{2}]=1.63\). An unsupported target-only group makes its risk unidentifiable without new information.

Research design and model validation
8

The published electricity figures for a workshop are 150 kWh before a maintenance change and 120 kWh afterward. Both readings were rounded independently to the…

Unlock the rest

Keep practising with 93 more questions, available hints and full worked solutions.

Explore Premium

Join our Newsletter and Receive the Latest Updates!

Main Links

Trade Courses Assessments Interview Prep Contact Us

Social Media

Facebook Instagram YouTube

Legal

Terms and Conditions Privacy Policy Privacy settings

Talent Acquisition

Looking to hire exceptional quant talent?
See how we can help.

© 2026 EverythingQuant. All Rights Reserved.