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Question

A modelling team predicts a customer's next-week spending minus the overall expected spending, in dollars. Call this centred outcome \(Y\). In truth, customers' outcomes are independent, with mean \(0\) and variance 25 \(\text{dollars}^{2}\), and marketing category provides no predictive information.

Each category in the team's evaluation dataset contains exactly five customers. For a customer \(i\), the team constructs a feature \(Z_i\) equal to the average of all five observed outcomes in that category, including \(Y_i\) itself, before dividing the dataset into training and evaluation sets. It then naively predicts \(Y_i\) using \(Z_i\).

Derive \(\operatorname{Cov}(Z_i,Y_i)\), the mean squared prediction error \(\mathbb E[(Y_i-Z_i)^2]\), and the apparent improvement over always predicting zero. Compare these with a valid deployment-time feature \(Z_i^*\) formed by averaging the outcomes of five different, independently observed training customers from the same category. What is the covariance and mean squared error if \(Z_i^*\) is used unchanged, and what is the best linear predictive weight on \(Z_i^*\) under this no-signal model?

Hint 1

Expand the category mean as \(Z_i=(Y_i+\sum_{j\ne i}Y_j)/5\). Only one term in that sum is correlated with \(Y_i\).

Use \(\operatorname{Var}(Y_i)=25\), \(\operatorname{Var}(Z_i)=25/5\) and \(\operatorname{MSE}(Y_i,Z_i)=\operatorname{Var}(Y_i)+\operatorname{Var}(Z_i)-2\operatorname{Cov}(Y_i,Z_i)\). For an independently fitted category mean, the covariance term is absent.

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